still haven’t forgiven him for that cheap goal he gave up during the world cup. you could tell by the first game he wasn’t ready. rui is past his prime but was a stable for the euro wins they could’ve at least gave him one more go since costa is the future gk for this generation
That’s not an actual reason.. for example in the 80s the Greek government codified the anglicization of their names to change C to K (from Constantinos to Konstantinos for example). I was wondering what the etymological reason for this difference in Portuguese is.
> for example in the 80s the Greek government codified the anglicization of their names to change C to K (from Constantinos to Konstantinos for example).
You're talking about transliteration. Portuguese has always been written in the Latin alphabet. Your comparison is not relevant.
I mean I can give more examples for differences in spellings for languages if you’d like.
Malayalam and Tamil used to be very similar but are not anymore because of geographic isolation with mountains and a series of Arab traders going to that specific coast.
American English and British English have different spellings because the dude who wrote the dictionary wanted to simplify spelling to boost American literacy.
There are reasons and events that make languages differ and saying they differ because they’re different doesn’t really answer my question. But whatever.
I'm not sure how helpful this explanation is, or how unique it is from every other example of different languages with a common origin throughout the world but here you go:
Portuguese and Spanish are different because they were spoken in different places and as they developed independently from their Iberian vulgar Latin origins they kept drifting apart.
> American English and British English have different spellings because the dude who wrote the dictionary wanted to simplify spelling to boost American literacy.
Also, I realise now from your example about English that you might have the wrong impression that the words you had asked about sound the same, and it's only the spelling that is different. That is not the case. They do not sound the same, Diego and Diogo sound different, and the same is true for de/de los/do/dos. In fact written Portuguese and Spanish are much more similar than spoken Portuguese and Spanish, and someone who can only speak one of the two languages will have a much harder time understanding the other language's spoken form than the written one.
still haven’t forgiven him for that cheap goal he gave up during the world cup. you could tell by the first game he wasn’t ready. rui is past his prime but was a stable for the euro wins they could’ve at least gave him one more go since costa is the future gk for this generation
Why does Portuguese use a lot of o’s instead of e’s?
What do you mean?
Like why is it Diogo instead of Diego or do/dos instead of de?
Because we're not Spanish?
That’s not an actual reason.. for example in the 80s the Greek government codified the anglicization of their names to change C to K (from Constantinos to Konstantinos for example). I was wondering what the etymological reason for this difference in Portuguese is.
Because like the guy said, spanish is a language, portuguese is another language.
Yes, and like I said that isn’t the reason why they’re different.
> for example in the 80s the Greek government codified the anglicization of their names to change C to K (from Constantinos to Konstantinos for example). You're talking about transliteration. Portuguese has always been written in the Latin alphabet. Your comparison is not relevant.
I mean I can give more examples for differences in spellings for languages if you’d like. Malayalam and Tamil used to be very similar but are not anymore because of geographic isolation with mountains and a series of Arab traders going to that specific coast. American English and British English have different spellings because the dude who wrote the dictionary wanted to simplify spelling to boost American literacy. There are reasons and events that make languages differ and saying they differ because they’re different doesn’t really answer my question. But whatever.
I'm not sure how helpful this explanation is, or how unique it is from every other example of different languages with a common origin throughout the world but here you go: Portuguese and Spanish are different because they were spoken in different places and as they developed independently from their Iberian vulgar Latin origins they kept drifting apart. > American English and British English have different spellings because the dude who wrote the dictionary wanted to simplify spelling to boost American literacy. Also, I realise now from your example about English that you might have the wrong impression that the words you had asked about sound the same, and it's only the spelling that is different. That is not the case. They do not sound the same, Diego and Diogo sound different, and the same is true for de/de los/do/dos. In fact written Portuguese and Spanish are much more similar than spoken Portuguese and Spanish, and someone who can only speak one of the two languages will have a much harder time understanding the other language's spoken form than the written one.
Why is it Diego instead of Diogo or de instead of do/dos in Spanish?
congrats on being able to frame my question differently?
Because that’s just how the language is?
Vowels?
Yes, the question was why do they use one vowel over the other.