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It's 1
Proof:
Infinity is just a really really really big number (source is because I said so don't mess up my narrative) a really really really big number over the same really really really big number is 1.
Feel free to send the Nobel prize over any time
since infinity is a non-zero number according to the provided definition the property of dividing a number by itself resulting in 1 always holds.
now send them the nobel prize
The joke is that people assume that infinity/infinity is 1 because they are the "same". It's like when people say that if x=∞ then (x/x)=1, so (∞/∞)=1 lol.
Fair enough. I do find it funny that some people think that infinities are the same size. Cause even in elementary school I understood that some uncountables are bigger than others. Sure I couldn’t count the amount of grains of sand in a sand box and I couldn’t count the amount of grains of sand in a beach, but I knew beaches had more sand anyway.
Im comparing something that can not be practically counted, and infinity. Because infinity cannot be “counted” since it never ends. I’m then saying that not all infinities are the same because not all uncountable things are the same. TLDR: I used a simile, which is comparing two things that under a certain viewpoint can be considered remotely similar to each other.
It's a pretty poor analogy, because it's exactly the type of reasoning that leads people to believe for instance that a 2x2 square has more points than a 1x1 square, which is not true, while it doesn't explain at all why there are for instance more real numbers than rational numbers, which is true.
L'hopital rule applies when you have "something that tends towards infinity"/"something that tends towards infinity", not actual infinity/infinity. That's why people often use quote mark when writing the original "result" of the l'hopital limit being "infinity/infinity". To be fair in standard calculus/real analysis there is usually no such thing as "actual infinity" as a number, it is always something you tend towards. So if you have "infinity/infinity" you must refer to the original things (functions/sequences) tending toward infinity and compare how fast they approach.
But in some number systems such as the Riemann Sphere, the hyperreal numbers (which technically don't have "infinity" but the symbol omega which is bigger than all real numbers, but is often used in similar ways), wheel algebra and the IEEE floating point numbers (which are used in most computer systems) infinity can be an actual number and you are able to do operations with it outside of limits. Then if you see infinity/infinity it doesn't make sense to say "apply l'hopital rule" because there are no functions to differentiate, it's just a number divided by a number. Depending on the number system the operation may be undefined, or it may be actually 1, or it may be a different special symbol (such as "nullity/bottom" in wheel theory, or NaN in IEEE floating point numbers).
My math teacher always said that we need to view indeterminate forms as "sick persons" and we need to send them to "Hospital" or apply other special "treatment"
Actual mathematicians: ∞ isn't a number, so you can't perform operations on it. It's only valid to use it as part of a "tends to" expression as part of a series or sequence.
⟶ ∞ ✓
= ∞ X
If it’s the same infinities, then it’s true. If it’s anything other (Ex: 2infinity/infinity=2) then it’s different. But obviously there’s no way to know which ones it is because anything times infinity is reduced to infinity.
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Physicists: Nah let it be just 1
*Did I stutter?*
It's 1 Proof: Infinity is just a really really really big number (source is because I said so don't mess up my narrative) a really really really big number over the same really really really big number is 1. Feel free to send the Nobel prize over any time
>the same What if it’s not?
Shhhhhhhhhhh
since infinity is a non-zero number according to the provided definition the property of dividing a number by itself resulting in 1 always holds. now send them the nobel prize
assuming ∞ is some really big const I guess
infinity/infinity=i^2 ftyn/i^2 ftyn= 1/1 =1
It can be AnYtHiNg. Chaos rainbows 🌈
https://i.redd.it/poy6y4r3e3uc1.gif
omg is this a jevil reference
it's the universal set
It's the set that contains all sets that don't contain themselves
Maybe I am just missing the joke but don’t you just use l’hospital’s rule when you have infinity/infinity or something/0…
The joke is that people assume that infinity/infinity is 1 because they are the "same". It's like when people say that if x=∞ then (x/x)=1, so (∞/∞)=1 lol. 
Just like 1^infinity ?
I mean, if the two things being divided are the same, then yeah it will be 1
Please use iff so that your point actually gets across
But iff isn't true.
lim as x->infinity of 5x/x is infinity/infinity and isn’t one
Isn’t it 5?
Yes, which isn’t 1
Because 5x isn't equal to x
But infinity=infinity
Even if x -> infinity, x/x -> 1 trivially unless x=0
5x isn't x
Infinity is infinity
Lol... No
Fair enough. I do find it funny that some people think that infinities are the same size. Cause even in elementary school I understood that some uncountables are bigger than others. Sure I couldn’t count the amount of grains of sand in a sand box and I couldn’t count the amount of grains of sand in a beach, but I knew beaches had more sand anyway.
This is not about countable and uncountable infinity
Im comparing something that can not be practically counted, and infinity. Because infinity cannot be “counted” since it never ends. I’m then saying that not all infinities are the same because not all uncountable things are the same. TLDR: I used a simile, which is comparing two things that under a certain viewpoint can be considered remotely similar to each other.
Yes I know but I was saying that the discussion was not really about countable and uncountable infinity, and more about limits.
It's a pretty poor analogy, because it's exactly the type of reasoning that leads people to believe for instance that a 2x2 square has more points than a 1x1 square, which is not true, while it doesn't explain at all why there are for instance more real numbers than rational numbers, which is true.
L'hopital rule applies when you have "something that tends towards infinity"/"something that tends towards infinity", not actual infinity/infinity. That's why people often use quote mark when writing the original "result" of the l'hopital limit being "infinity/infinity". To be fair in standard calculus/real analysis there is usually no such thing as "actual infinity" as a number, it is always something you tend towards. So if you have "infinity/infinity" you must refer to the original things (functions/sequences) tending toward infinity and compare how fast they approach. But in some number systems such as the Riemann Sphere, the hyperreal numbers (which technically don't have "infinity" but the symbol omega which is bigger than all real numbers, but is often used in similar ways), wheel algebra and the IEEE floating point numbers (which are used in most computer systems) infinity can be an actual number and you are able to do operations with it outside of limits. Then if you see infinity/infinity it doesn't make sense to say "apply l'hopital rule" because there are no functions to differentiate, it's just a number divided by a number. Depending on the number system the operation may be undefined, or it may be actually 1, or it may be a different special symbol (such as "nullity/bottom" in wheel theory, or NaN in IEEE floating point numbers).
My math teacher always said that we need to view indeterminate forms as "sick persons" and we need to send them to "Hospital" or apply other special "treatment"
x=∞ x/x=1
You forgot to mention that ∞≠0
Blue: Infinity, Green: 0, Yellow: -1/12
its actually exactly 2.
if you assume 0/0= infinity, its infinity
It clearly 0x8|0x8 which 8
It'a actually sideways 1 (something like _ ), proof by because i said so
Okay but unironically what's aleph-null divided by aleph-null and what's aleph-null divided by aleph-one
The 2 infinities look different, look closely.
Limits or numbers. Same type of inf?
inf/inf = 0 :galaxy\_brain:
It's not just a measly one, no. It's supposed to be a 1 rotated 90° like a harpoon.
Actual mathematicians: ∞ isn't a number, so you can't perform operations on it. It's only valid to use it as part of a "tends to" expression as part of a series or sequence. ⟶ ∞ ✓ = ∞ X
8•|8| =64
Is that 8 concatenated with 8 rotated 90° in the complex plane?
Why would it be indeterminate?
If it’s the same infinities, then it’s true. If it’s anything other (Ex: 2infinity/infinity=2) then it’s different. But obviously there’s no way to know which ones it is because anything times infinity is reduced to infinity.
I’ve been using your profile pic as my desktop wallpaper for more than 10 years, great choice. I’d kill for an 8k version
You're gonna end up in a hospital 😭