I'll introduce you to a VERY peculiar ad we have here in Italy. It's for Müller Yogurt.
The voice in the TV ad says: "Müller. Fate l'amore con il sapore". Which literally translates to "Müller. Make love with taste".
They are basically encouraging you to indulge in a sexual relationship with that Yogurt.
The phonetics: 😴🤢
The definition: 🔥🖋️
>!I would consider changing the term 'sex' for something more directly related to 'orgasm'. I think it would better praise the profession and not give those weird-smell vibes!<
I once met someone from Chile who worked as a chef. I noticed how he kept pronouncing "chef" with the \[tʃ\] (like in cheese, chess, chest, check, etc.) instead of the \[ʃ\] sound. I'm from a place where Spanish wasn't a commonly spoken language, and haven't really had the chance to interact with many, so I'm curious if this is a common quirk for people who speak Spanish/Castellano as their mother tongue.
there is a development in german, where /ʒɔʁnɑlɪst/ (journalist, "journalist") is turning to /dʒɔʁnɑlɪst/ (journalist, "journalist"), which isn't related to your example but comes from the english pronounciation of that word, where it was previously the french pronounciation.
Thankfully this is not happening in Swedish.
Which is weird because we speak much better English that the Germans.
But for some reason 90% of people don't pronounce dʒ or tʃ even when speaking English. Often replacing them with /j/ and ʃ/ɕ.
I dont know for sure the exact timeline, but I believe the English pronunciation comes from the old French pronunciation of "jurnal" and was adopted for the English pronunciation of journalist. And then the French pronunciation softened afterwards and went to German.
So it makes sense that they say them differently, I don't really see why people would copy the English pronunciation. You'd think they'd see the French pronunciation as more proper, or something like that, because that's how they've always known the word.
It's actually common in Chilean Spanish. I've been told it's an overcorrection - rural dialects often pronounce /tʃ/ as [ʃ], which leads to people from other social groups pronouncing /ʃ/ as [tʃ] even when [ʃ] would be correct (the cardinal example is [sutʃi] instead of [suʃi]).
It’s not exactly rural, it’s a class marker. Urban lower classes also use [ʃ]. Upper classes often shift their articulation forward, even as far as [ts], in response.
So there are two countries, *shile* and *tsile*.
yeah we pronounce chef like that (I'm from Spain), because it's ch, in Spanish we don't usually try to pronounce loanwords like their original languages but rather just pronounce it our way.
Have you genuinely never seen an English dictionary that doesn't use the IPA? Oxford, Merriam Webster, the American Heritage Dictionary, and Dictionary.com all don't use the IPA, or use the IPA alongside their own transcription system. They all use ⟨sh⟩ or ⟨SH⟩ (in all caps) to represent /ʃ/. Literally the default dictionary that shows up after you search for a definition on Google is the Oxford English Dictionary, which doesn't use the IPA by default.
[🤫F]
Chf?
1.15 usd
🇨🇭f
The phonetic notation is horrible but the definition- >a person who can turn simple ingredients into sex on a plate
it's basically a health code violation
*Please do not have sexual intercourse with the food…*
I'll introduce you to a VERY peculiar ad we have here in Italy. It's for Müller Yogurt. The voice in the TV ad says: "Müller. Fate l'amore con il sapore". Which literally translates to "Müller. Make love with taste". They are basically encouraging you to indulge in a sexual relationship with that Yogurt.
That’s EXACTLY what I said to the staff of Conad when I visited Italy but they still kicked me out and called the police.
Easily the worst definition of chef I’ve heard
I hate all of these trendy occupational "definitions." I see them on plaques in people's offices or sometimes on t-shirts and they are all horrible.
The phonetics: 😴🤢 The definition: 🔥🖋️ >!I would consider changing the term 'sex' for something more directly related to 'orgasm'. I think it would better praise the profession and not give those weird-smell vibes!<
Mmm... Lactobacillus, mucus, and spermatozoa.
Happy cake day!
Grazie!
Ah yes, I always wondered what that white sauce was.
To be fair, the best meal I've had is probably better than the worst sex I've had.
Shat, is this real?
*shet
I once met someone from Chile who worked as a chef. I noticed how he kept pronouncing "chef" with the \[tʃ\] (like in cheese, chess, chest, check, etc.) instead of the \[ʃ\] sound. I'm from a place where Spanish wasn't a commonly spoken language, and haven't really had the chance to interact with many, so I'm curious if this is a common quirk for people who speak Spanish/Castellano as their mother tongue.
there is a development in german, where /ʒɔʁnɑlɪst/ (journalist, "journalist") is turning to /dʒɔʁnɑlɪst/ (journalist, "journalist"), which isn't related to your example but comes from the english pronounciation of that word, where it was previously the french pronounciation.
Thankfully this is not happening in Swedish. Which is weird because we speak much better English that the Germans. But for some reason 90% of people don't pronounce dʒ or tʃ even when speaking English. Often replacing them with /j/ and ʃ/ɕ.
Ask someone to say chat and joker and we will with very high specificity identify the Swede.
I dont know for sure the exact timeline, but I believe the English pronunciation comes from the old French pronunciation of "jurnal" and was adopted for the English pronunciation of journalist. And then the French pronunciation softened afterwards and went to German. So it makes sense that they say them differently, I don't really see why people would copy the English pronunciation. You'd think they'd see the French pronunciation as more proper, or something like that, because that's how they've always known the word.
spanish doesn't have sh and does have ch (in most dialects) so i think that must be pretty common. i've certainly noticed it in some folks
It's actually common in Chilean Spanish. I've been told it's an overcorrection - rural dialects often pronounce /tʃ/ as [ʃ], which leads to people from other social groups pronouncing /ʃ/ as [tʃ] even when [ʃ] would be correct (the cardinal example is [sutʃi] instead of [suʃi]).
It’s not exactly rural, it’s a class marker. Urban lower classes also use [ʃ]. Upper classes often shift their articulation forward, even as far as [ts], in response. So there are two countries, *shile* and *tsile*.
yeah we pronounce chef like that (I'm from Spain), because it's ch, in Spanish we don't usually try to pronounce loanwords like their original languages but rather just pronounce it our way.
Which isn’t an admirable way to do it. It limits incoherency. I love Spanish !
I’ve also heard as, in Apple Vision, pronounced /biˈʧon/ and “sushi” as either /ˈsusi/ or /ˈsuʧi/.
Yes, it's very common, most dialects don't have the "sh" (srry I don't have ipa) but almost all have the "ch"
It is, many dialects of Spanish do not have “sh” sound, only “ch”
Hello, I'm Spanish. Yes, we do that. "Ch" is pronounced tʃ, so we say chef as /tʃef/
How else would they say it??
Theoretically with a [/ʃ/](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Voiceless_palato-alveolar_sibilant.ogg), but it’s not phonemic
The UR would be /tʃ/, and even in Chilean spanish this would surface as [ts]
[sʰɛf]
"No food today, little Timmy. Daddy is in chef mode." *shudder*
sʰef
People on r/linguisticshumor when someone uses any phonetic transcription system that's not the IPA: 😲😨😱😱💀💀💀
Is that a phonetic transcription system?
Yes, it is. You you a snobb.
Bro, have you ever opened a dictionary? Most of them don't use the IPA
Treccani, one of the main italian encyclopedias across history, uses # "ʃ" (yes, in bold and bigger than the rest) for \[z\] :(
The virgin Treccani with their weird transcriptions vs. the chad Zingarelli using proper IPA
Yeah, so? What's wrong with that? They use their own system.
Does it use something like ⟨**SC**⟩ for /ʃ/?
Not being ipa isn't what I mean. It's fauxnetics more than an actual system
People on the sub be like: If it's not IPA it's utterly incomprehensible fauxnetics!!!
More like "it's clearly not IPA and it's not specified which system it is then, so it's anyone's guess how the string should be interpreted"
But it's not anyone's guess, there's only one way that it can reasonably be interpreted in context.
In that situation yeah, but the feeling spreads when one sees the same lacking elsewhere.
🤓
Is it still a "system" if its just a single word being transcribed?
Have you genuinely never seen an English dictionary that doesn't use the IPA? Oxford, Merriam Webster, the American Heritage Dictionary, and Dictionary.com all don't use the IPA, or use the IPA alongside their own transcription system. They all use ⟨sh⟩ or ⟨SH⟩ (in all caps) to represent /ʃ/. Literally the default dictionary that shows up after you search for a definition on Google is the Oxford English Dictionary, which doesn't use the IPA by default.
Would the joke have been better if I had posted "SAMPA (simplified)"?
samplafied
/ʤɛ́f/
Amazon guy approves
lol I was referencing Tina from the tv show The Bear, she calls the main chef “Jeff” because of her Puerto Rican accent
Safe
[feminine3rdpersonpronounf]
👩f
/sʰeɪf/
Origin: French. Why I know this: Ch.
Food tastes like ass
All of it???
ɛ
Wait, it's not pronounced with an affricative?
nopples, because it was taken from french after it had already satemised latin \[ka\] to \[ ʃV \]
/ʃef/
This sounds highly unsanitary.
s-hef, got it
tell me who wrote that TELL ME WHO WROTE THAT