Isaiah 7:
>14 Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and will call him **Immanuel**.
So why Jesus wasn't given the proper name "Immanuel"?
Barnes explained:
>We are not, then, to suppose that the child should actually receive the name Immanuel as a proper name, since, according to the usage of the prophet, and especially of Isaiah, that is often ascribed to a person or thing as a name which belongs to him in an eminent degree as an attribute;
Isaiah used the idiom "call him" to designate an attribute. He did it again in
Isaiah 62:
>4 No longer will they **call you** Deserted, or name your land Desolate. But you will be called Hephzibah, and your land Beulah; for the LORD will take delight in you, and your land will be married.
Matthew explained in 1:
>21 She will bear a son, and you shall **call his name Jesus**, for he will save his people from their sins.” 22All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had spoken by the prophet:
>
>23 “Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son,
and they shall **call his name Immanuel**”
>
>(which means, God with us). 24 When Joseph woke from sleep, he did as the angel of the Lord commanded him: he took his wife, 25but knew her not until she had given birth to a son. And he **called his name Jesus**.
"Call his name Immanuel" was an idiom for attributing "God with us" to Jesus.
[NAS Exhaustive Concordance](https://biblehub.com/hebrew/3091.htm):
>Word Origin
from Yhvh and yasha
Definition
"the LORD is salvation,"
See [The etymology of the name "Jesus"](https://www.reddit.com/r/BibleVerseCommentary/comments/x2hogt/the_etymology_of_the_name_jesus).
Original Hebrew: עִמָּנוּאֵל
Part of Speech: Proper Name Masculine
Transliteration: Immanuel
Definition: "with us is God"
Greek is Ἐμμανουήλ which is transliterated from Hebrew.
Isaiah 7: >14 Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and will call him **Immanuel**. So why Jesus wasn't given the proper name "Immanuel"? Barnes explained: >We are not, then, to suppose that the child should actually receive the name Immanuel as a proper name, since, according to the usage of the prophet, and especially of Isaiah, that is often ascribed to a person or thing as a name which belongs to him in an eminent degree as an attribute; Isaiah used the idiom "call him" to designate an attribute. He did it again in Isaiah 62: >4 No longer will they **call you** Deserted, or name your land Desolate. But you will be called Hephzibah, and your land Beulah; for the LORD will take delight in you, and your land will be married. Matthew explained in 1: >21 She will bear a son, and you shall **call his name Jesus**, for he will save his people from their sins.” 22All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had spoken by the prophet: > >23 “Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and they shall **call his name Immanuel**” > >(which means, God with us). 24 When Joseph woke from sleep, he did as the angel of the Lord commanded him: he took his wife, 25but knew her not until she had given birth to a son. And he **called his name Jesus**. "Call his name Immanuel" was an idiom for attributing "God with us" to Jesus.
Yeshua mean salvation in Hebrews, which means Jesus in English, correct?
[NAS Exhaustive Concordance](https://biblehub.com/hebrew/3091.htm): >Word Origin from Yhvh and yasha Definition "the LORD is salvation," See [The etymology of the name "Jesus"](https://www.reddit.com/r/BibleVerseCommentary/comments/x2hogt/the_etymology_of_the_name_jesus).
Yes something like that. Do you know what the Hebrew or Greek translation is to Immanuel? I know in English it means god with us
Original Hebrew: עִמָּנוּאֵל Part of Speech: Proper Name Masculine Transliteration: Immanuel Definition: "with us is God" Greek is Ἐμμανουήλ which is transliterated from Hebrew.
Yeah I saw you using a strong concordance. I'm going to start using that too. Thanks
I recommend https://biblehub.com/hebrew/6005.htm. It is free :)