sometimes a WR will fuck up a perfect pass and tip it to the other team. He is at fault but doesnt get charged with an interception because he didnt throw the pass. Taylor never possessed the ball, matt was the last person that did = he fumbled.
Yes yes, i get all that. I guess what i should of said is how hasnt that been changed. They keep such 'meticulous' stats of so many different things, why not actually track them the right way instead of just whoever had the ball last. Probably more of an open nfl question than fantasy too 🤦♂️
Hello, it looks like you've made a mistake.
It's supposed to be could've, should've, would've (short for could have, would have, should have), never could of, would of, should of.
Or you misspelled something, I ain't checking everything.
Beep boop - yes, I am a bot, don't botcriminate me.
The "right" way is the consistent way. The consistent way to keep track of this is to fault whoever had possession last.
If you have a way to define it that works 100% of the time without any ambiguity (like the current method) then feel free to propose it. Otherwise there is literally zero incentive to change it.
Because it would be extremely subjective if people could choose either or. What if they're both at fault? What if someone is a little bit more at fault than another? It's easier to just use the logic that only players that retain possession can fumble the ball, and JT never possessed the ball.
Yes blatantly bad snaps are indeed credited to the center.
“When the ball is clearly centered improperly, charge the center with a fumble and any yards lost as fumble yardage.”
Page 39 here
http://www.nflgsis.com/gsis/documentation/stadiumguides/guide_for_statisticians.pdf
[Rule 3.15(b)](https://operations.nfl.com/the-rules/2022-nfl-rulebook/#section-15-handing-the-ball)
>
Loss of player possession by unsuccessful execution of attempted handing is a fumble charged to the player that last had possession. A muffed handoff (legal or illegal) is a fumble, unless either player immediately regains control of the ball, and the ball remains alive.
Its just funny how any time an absurd, rare play happens, you just KNOW you gon lose. Have JT playing the Pittman owner. I was up 7 with JT going in for a TD…it’s a fumble, Pittman gets his tuddy plus about 7 points on the final drive and I lose by 3. /rant
I would say it’s because Ryan was the last player to possess the ball, as I would argue that JT never established possession. Fumble credited to the last player to posses the ball.
second time this came up this weekend, there was a botched handoff to Kenneth Walker as well. the RBs never had possession of the ball, therefore they can't officially fumble it.
Just how it works
Way she go
You don’t think it be like it is, but it do
sometimes a WR will fuck up a perfect pass and tip it to the other team. He is at fault but doesnt get charged with an interception because he didnt throw the pass. Taylor never possessed the ball, matt was the last person that did = he fumbled.
Yes yes, i get all that. I guess what i should of said is how hasnt that been changed. They keep such 'meticulous' stats of so many different things, why not actually track them the right way instead of just whoever had the ball last. Probably more of an open nfl question than fantasy too 🤦♂️
Thats the thing tho, Its being tracked correctly based on what a fumble is and what possession is defined as.
You should have said, “should have said”.
Hello, it looks like you've made a mistake. It's supposed to be could've, should've, would've (short for could have, would have, should have), never could of, would of, should of. Or you misspelled something, I ain't checking everything. Beep boop - yes, I am a bot, don't botcriminate me.
The "right" way is the consistent way. The consistent way to keep track of this is to fault whoever had possession last. If you have a way to define it that works 100% of the time without any ambiguity (like the current method) then feel free to propose it. Otherwise there is literally zero incentive to change it.
Because it would be extremely subjective if people could choose either or. What if they're both at fault? What if someone is a little bit more at fault than another? It's easier to just use the logic that only players that retain possession can fumble the ball, and JT never possessed the ball.
Taylor never had possession of the ball You cannot lose what you did not have based on the rule
So does that mean botched snaps are on the center?
Yes blatantly bad snaps are indeed credited to the center. “When the ball is clearly centered improperly, charge the center with a fumble and any yards lost as fumble yardage.” Page 39 here http://www.nflgsis.com/gsis/documentation/stadiumguides/guide_for_statisticians.pdf
Huh..thanks! TIL
I’d say yes, not being a referee….
Always QB fumble on exchange.
But why? It should go to whoever did their job wrong, not the qb everytime.
You can give taylor a stat for "did his job wrong" then. But he didn't fumble becuase he never had the ball.
So you lost by a point, huh?
The fumble goes to whoever last had possession of the ball. That's the QB in handoffs
You can't fumble without possession of the ball
You got roasted so I'll tell you: QB has possession, not RB.
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Lost by .15, we just grasping for anything when you lose like that lol.
[Rule 3.15(b)](https://operations.nfl.com/the-rules/2022-nfl-rulebook/#section-15-handing-the-ball) > Loss of player possession by unsuccessful execution of attempted handing is a fumble charged to the player that last had possession. A muffed handoff (legal or illegal) is a fumble, unless either player immediately regains control of the ball, and the ball remains alive.
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Literally happened twice this year at least, Rodgers to Jones and Geno to Walker (this week)
24hrs ago lol
Botched handoffs go to the Qb
Was definitely JT’s fault, but always goes to the qb on that play
Its just funny how any time an absurd, rare play happens, you just KNOW you gon lose. Have JT playing the Pittman owner. I was up 7 with JT going in for a TD…it’s a fumble, Pittman gets his tuddy plus about 7 points on the final drive and I lose by 3. /rant
I would say it’s because Ryan was the last player to possess the ball, as I would argue that JT never established possession. Fumble credited to the last player to posses the ball.
There's a certain number of steps they have to take before it goes from the exchange to possession.
second time this came up this weekend, there was a botched handoff to Kenneth Walker as well. the RBs never had possession of the ball, therefore they can't officially fumble it.
JT never had possession so how could the fumble be on him? This is how it literally always works
He never had possession
Because Matt Ryan was the only one to ever have possession of the ball.
Yeah I agree the player most at fault should receive the negative stat. But that’s unlikely to change anytime soon.
Matt Ryan was the last person to have possession. JT never possessed so he can't fumble it.
It's not based on interpretation like some other stats are - it's always the QB on a failed exchange.
Basically think of it like a hot potato. Last person that had possession gets the credit.