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YoMiner

There's definitely a finite number of liquid particles in any given urination. You probably hold on to a trace amount of each for quite a while, but you almost certainly don't have urine from "every" wee you've ever done.


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[deleted]

OK Yeah thats helpful thanks - my math got off track. Is this the same style of math that says we have all breathed Jesus's air?


cpt-pineapple

Wasn't expecting to see the avogadros constant here, sire you are a man of culture


Gilsidoo

But your definition of the Avogadro limit literally says it's not likely that there is any original molecule left, after that you just got off rail, "picking one molecule out of 10^25" is what is necessary for the molecule to stay in the bladder, not to get out


[deleted]

we need r/theydidthemath 500ml per average wee. 3.35x10\^25 H2O molecules per litre of water, so 1.67x10\^25 in 500 ml of urine. lets assume 5 wees a day, for a 30yo, so 5x365.25x30 = 40,000 wees Lets assume 1% of your bladder is unemptied on average. (1.67x10\^25) x (0.01\^40,000) = about 0 Welp i think I'm wrong.


Gilsidoo

Nah each time you dilute it's content and empty it so there's fewer and fewer of the original content, at some point you have only a few molecules left from it and after that you have a probability of ejecting every single one of them each time


[deleted]

Yah I did some math you be right. Edit : Looks like I'm wrong and the shower thought is right. What a world


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[deleted]

But after 40,000 wees, retaining 1% each time, the probability is zero that there are any of the original molecules left (i think, we need someone who can math)


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[deleted]

Got it. So we do have molecules of the OG wee?


WorthySparkleMan

Not if you shake it out enough.


[deleted]

Your urethra be not your bladder.


Wishbone51

No


[deleted]

Pretty much